UPSC (Prelims) 2024 - Target UPPSC

UPSC Prelims 2024 Question Paper (GS-I) Set-A

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans d]

(a) The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.

False. The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial radiation than by incoming solar radiation. While incoming solar radiation heats the Earth’s surface, it is the terrestrial (infrared) radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface that primarily heats the atmosphere. The Earth’s surface absorbs solar radiation, warms up, and then re-radiates energy in the form of infrared radiation, which is absorbed by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, leading to atmospheric heating.

(b) Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.

True. Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long-wave radiation, also known as infrared radiation. These gases trap heat emitted by the Earth’s surface, contributing to the greenhouse effect, which warms the atmosphere.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans a]

(1) Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.

True. The thickness of the troposphere is much greater at the equator compared to the poles. This is because the equator receives more solar energy, leading to more heating and a greater volume of rising air. The increased thermal energy causes the troposphere to expand and become thicker at the equator, typically reaching up to about 16-18 kilometers (10-11 miles). In contrast, the troposphere at the poles is thinner, usually extending up to about 8-10 kilometers (5-6 miles).

(2) At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.

True. At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. The intense solar heating at the equator causes the surface air to warm up, become less dense, and rise rapidly. This process, known as convection, results in the vertical transport of heat to higher altitudes in the troposphere. These strong convectional currents contribute to the formation of large cumulonimbus clouds and play a significant role in the global circulation of the atmosphere.

3. Consider the following:

Pyroclastic debris
Ash and dust
Nitrogen compounds
Sulphur compounds

How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans d]

products of volcanic eruption: pyroclastic debris, ash and dust, nitrogen compounds, Sulphur compounds

The products of a volcanic eruption typically include:

Pyroclastic Debris: This consists of various types of fragmented material ejected from a volcano, such as volcanic bombs, lapilli, and volcanic blocks.
Ash and Dust: Fine particles of pulverized rock and volcanic glass that are ejected into the atmosphere during an eruption.
Sulfur Compounds: Volcanic eruptions release gases like sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and hydrogen sulfide (H₂S), which can form sulfuric acid aerosols in the atmosphere.

However, volcanic eruptions do not typically produce nitrogen compounds in significant amounts. The main gases emitted by volcanoes are water vapor, carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and various other trace gases. Nitrogen compounds are not a major component of volcanic gases.

Nitrogen compounds are not typically considered major products of volcanic eruptions. The primary gases released during volcanic eruptions include:

Water Vapor (H₂O)
Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)
Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂)
Hydrogen Sulfide (H₂S)
Hydrogen Chloride (HCl)
Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
Carbon Monoxide (CO)

4. Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?

The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans a]

The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.

True. In January, which is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, isotherms (lines of equal temperature) deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This pattern is due to the differential heating properties of land and water:

Over the Ocean: The oceans have a high specific heat capacity, meaning they warm up and cool down more slowly compared to land. During winter, the oceans retain more heat and remain warmer. This causes the isotherms to bend northward over the ocean as they indicate warmer temperatures.
Over the Continent: Land masses have a lower specific heat capacity and lose heat more quickly. During winter, the continents cool down rapidly, causing the isotherms to bend southward over the land, indicating colder temperatures.

This deviation is more pronounced in the Northern Hemisphere during January due to the larger landmasses and the presence of major ocean currents that influence temperature distribution.

2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.

The statement is partly incorrect. Let’s break it down:

Cold Ocean Currents: The presence of cold ocean currents generally makes the adjacent regions cooler. For example, the Labrador Current in the North Atlantic Ocean is a cold current that cools the areas it flows past, contributing to cooler temperatures.
Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift: These are warm ocean currents. The Gulf Stream originates in the Gulf of Mexico and flows into the Atlantic Ocean, while the North Atlantic Drift is a continuation of the Gulf Stream flowing towards Northwestern Europe. These warm currents make the surrounding regions warmer, not colder.
Isotherm Bending in January:
- Oceans: In January, warm ocean currents like the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift keep the North Atlantic Ocean warmer. This causes isotherms to bend northward over the ocean.
- Continents: Cold conditions over the land cause isotherms to bend southward over continents.

So, the correct interpretation is that the presence of warm currents (Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift) makes the North Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing the isotherms to bend northward over the ocean in January. Cold currents, where present, would make areas cooler, but the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift specifically contribute to warming.

Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?

(a) Algeria and Morocco

(b) Botswana and Namibia

(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

[Ans c]

With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?

(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi

(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

[Ans b]

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I

(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

[Ans a]

Statement 1. Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.

True. Rainfall is one of the key factors contributing to the weathering of rocks. Weathering is the process of breaking down rocks into smaller particles through physical, chemical, and biological processes. Rainfall can contribute to both physical and chemical weathering:

Physical Weathering: The impact of raindrops can cause physical disintegration of rocks, especially in arid and semi-arid regions where rain can be infrequent but intense. Additionally, water from rainfall can enter cracks and pores in rocks, and when temperatures drop, this water can freeze and expand, leading to freeze-thaw cycles that break the rock apart.
Chemical Weathering: Rainwater is slightly acidic due to dissolved carbon dioxide forming carbonic acid. This acidic rainwater can react with minerals in the rocks, leading to chemical weathering processes such as dissolution, oxidation, and hydrolysis. For example, acidic rainwater can dissolve minerals like calcite in limestone, leading to the gradual breakdown of the rock.

Overall, rainfall is a significant agent in the weathering of rocks, contributing to both their physical breakdown and chemical alteration.

Statement 2. Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.

True. Rainwater contains carbon dioxide in solution. As rainwater falls through the atmosphere, it absorbs carbon dioxide (CO₂) from the air. This CO₂ reacts with water (H₂O) to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃):

CO2+H2O→H2CO3

This process makes rainwater naturally slightly acidic, typically with a pH around 5.6. This weak carbonic acid plays a role in chemical weathering by reacting with minerals in rocks, leading to their breakdown and alteration over time.

Statement 3. Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.

True. Yes, rainwater contains oxygen from the atmosphere. As it falls, rainwater absorbs oxygen from the air and dissolves it, which is different from the oxygen in water molecules. Rainwater also contains more oxygen than tap water because it doesn’t have dissolved salts like regular water.

Rainwater can also indirectly contain dissolved oxygen if it comes into contact with oxygen-rich environments after falling. For example, as rainwater flows over the surface of the Earth or through soil and rocks, it can pick up dissolved oxygen from the atmosphere that has mixed with surface water or infiltrated into the ground. This is why water bodies like rivers, lakes, and streams can contain dissolved oxygen, which is crucial for aquatic life.

Rainwater and oxygen can cause chemical weathering of rocks through oxidation process:

Oxidation: Oxygen combines with other substances to create compounds called oxides. For example, iron-rich rocks can develop a rusty-colored weathered surface when oxygen and water break them down.

8. Consider the following countries:

Finland
Germany
Norway
Russia

How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

Consider the following information:

	Waterfall	Region	River
1.	Dhuandhar	Malwa	Narmada
2.	Hundru	Chota Nagpur	Subarnarekha
3.	Gersoppa	Western Ghats	Netravati

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans a]

Dhuandhar waterfall, malwa region, narmada river

False. The Dhuandhar Waterfall is on Narmada River in Bhedaghat and are 30 meters high., specifically near Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh, India. It is formed by the Narmada River as it plunges over rocks and creates a spectacular cascade known for its misty appearance (“Dhuandhar” translates to “smoky” or “misty”). The Narmada River, making its way through the world-famous Marble Rocks, narrows down and then plunges in a waterfall known as Dhuandhaar.

Hundru waterfall, Chota Nagpur region, Subarnarekha river

True. Hundru Waterfall is located in the Chota Nagpur Plateau region of Jharkhand, India. It is formed by the Subarnarekha River as it cascades over a rocky cliff, creating a picturesque waterfall.

Gersoppa waterfall, Western Ghats region, Netravati river

False. The Gersoppa Waterfall, also known as Jog Falls, is located in the Western Ghats region of Karnataka, India. However, it is formed by the Sharavathi River, not the Netravati River.

Consider the following information:

	Region	Name of the mountain range	Type of mountain
1.	Central	Vosges	Fold mountain
2.	Europe	Alps	Block mountain
3.	North America	Appalachians	Fold mountain
4.	South America	Andes	Fold mountain

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

Central Asia, Vosges range, Fold mountain

False. The statement is partially correct. Central Asia is a region that includes countries like Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, and Kyrgyzstan. The Vosges Mountains are a range in France, part of the larger European system. However, the term “Fold mountain” typically refers to mountains formed by the folding of rock layers due to tectonic forces.

“Block Mountains” are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts and the lowered blocks are called graben. The Rhine valley and the Vosges mountain in Europe are examples of such mountain systems.

So, to summarize:

Central Asia: Region including countries like Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, Tajikistan, and Kyrgyzstan.
Vosges Range: A mountain range in France, part of the European system, and an example of block mountains.

Europe, Alps, Block mountain

False. The statement is partly correct. The Alps are a mountain range in Europe, stretching across several countries including France, Switzerland, Italy, Austria, and Germany. However, the term “Block mountain” is not commonly used to describe the Alps.

Block mountains, also known as fault-block mountains, are formed by the upliftment of large blocks of the Earth’s crust along faults or fractures. The uplifted blocks form steep mountain ranges, often with a relatively flat top. The Sierra Nevada in the United States is an example of a block mountain.

The Alps, on the other hand, are primarily formed through the collision of tectonic plates, resulting in the folding and uplifting of rock layers. They are commonly classified as fold mountains, not block mountains.

North America, Appalachians, Fold mountain

True. The Appalachians are a mountain range in North America, primarily running along the eastern United States from Alabama to Newfoundland, Canada. They are an example of fold mountains, formed by the collision of tectonic plates and the subsequent folding and uplifting of rock layers.

South America, Andes, Fold mountain

True. The Andes Mountains in South America are a classic example of fold mountains. They run along the western coast of South America, spanning several countries including Chile, Peru, Bolivia, Ecuador, Colombia, Argentina, and Venezuela. The Andes were formed by the convergence of the South American Plate and the Nazca Plate, leading to the folding, faulting, and uplift of rock layers, making them a prime example of fold mountains.

11. Consider the following airports:

Donyi Polo Airport
Kushinagar International Airport
Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans a]

The correct answer is (a) 1 and 2 only.

Donyi Polo Airport: This airport has been constructed as a Greenfield project. It is a newly built airport in Arunachal Pradesh, India, aimed at improving connectivity in the northeastern region.

Kushinagar International Airport: This airport is also a Greenfield project. It was developed to boost tourism and facilitate international travel, particularly for Buddhist pilgrims visiting the historical site of Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh, India.

Vijayawada International Airport: This airport is not a Greenfield project. It was originally a domestic airport and later upgraded to an international airport, thus not fitting the criteria of a Greenfield project.

As part of the Greenfield Airports (GFA) Policy in 2008 to facilitate the development of new airports in the country, the central government granted ‘In-Principle’ approval for the establishment of 21 new Greenfield Airports across various states.

Greenfield Airports in India

These airports include Mopa in Goa, Navi Mumbai, Shirdi, and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, Kalaburagi, Vijayapura, Hassan, and Shivamogga in Karnataka, Dabra (Gwalior) in Madhya Pradesh, Kushinagar, and Noida (Jewar) in Uttar Pradesh, Dholera, and Hirasar in Gujarat, Karaikal in Puducherry, Dagadarthi, Bhogapuram, and Orvakal (Kurnool) in Andhra Pradesh, Durgapur in West Bengal, Pakyong in Sikkim, Kannur in Kerala, and Hollongi (Itanagar) in Arunachal Pradesh.

Airports which are operational

Among these, 11 Greenfield airports, namely Durgapur, Shirdi, Kannur, Pakyong, Kalaburagi, Orvakal (Kurnool), Sindhudurg, Kushinagar, Itanagar, Mopa, and Shivamogga, have already been operationalised.

[https://www.financialexpress.com/business/airlines-aviation-greenfield-airports-in-india-how-many-to-be-developed-as-international-airports-know-all-about-operations-investment-and-more-3190505/]

12. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans a]

Water vapour is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.

True. Water vapor is indeed a gas, and its concentration in the atmosphere generally decreases with altitude. This decrease in water vapor content with altitude is primarily due to the decrease in temperature and atmospheric pressure as altitude increases.

As air rises in the atmosphere, it expands and cools due to decreasing pressure. Cooler air can hold less moisture, leading to the condensation and precipitation of water vapor, which reduces its concentration at higher altitudes. This is why the air is typically drier at higher altitudes compared to lower altitudes.

Water vapour percentage is maximum at the poles.

False. The water vapor percentage in the atmosphere is generally higher in warm and humid regions near the equator rather than at the poles. This is because warm air can hold more moisture than cold air, leading to higher absolute humidity levels in tropical and subtropical areas. As air moves towards the poles, it cools, and its capacity to hold moisture decreases, resulting in lower water vapor percentages in polar regions.

13. Consider the following description:

Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
Precipitation varies between 50cm – 250cm.

What is this type of climate?

(a) Equatorial climate

(b) China type climate

(d) Marine West coast climate

[Ans d]

Marine west coast climate, major climate type of the Köppen classification characterized by equable climates with few extremes of temperature and ample precipitation in all months. It is located poleward of the Mediterranean climate region on the western sides of the continents, between 35° and 60° N and S latitude.

Unlike their equatorward neighbours, marine west coast climates are located beyond the farthest poleward extent of the subtropical anticyclone, and they experience the midlatitude westerlies and traveling frontal cyclones all year. Precipitation totals vary somewhat throughout the year in response to the changing location and intensity of these storm systems, but annual accumulations generally range from 50 to 250 cm (20 to 98 inches), with local totals exceeding 500 cm (197 inches) where onshore winds encounter mountain ranges.

Annual temperature ranges are rather small (10–15 °C or [50–59 °F]).

(Credit: https://www.britannica.com/)

14. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It increases with increase in wind velocity.
It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans c]

Coriolis force increases with an increase in wind velocity:

True. The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the speed of the moving object, including wind. Higher wind velocities result in stronger Coriolis forces, which is why the Coriolis effect is more pronounced in faster-moving air masses such as jet streams.

Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator:

True. The Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and decreases to zero at the equator. Near the poles, where the rotational velocity of the Earth is lower due to the smaller circumference of the latitude circles, the Coriolis force is strongest. Conversely, at the equator, where the rotational velocity is highest due to the larger circumference, the Coriolis force is absent.

15. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

Equator
Tropic of Cancer
Tropic of Capricorn
Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 4

[Ans d]

On June 21 every year:

The Equator experiences approximately 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of darkness. This is because the tilt of the Earth’s axis relative to the Sun is such that the equinoxes (around March 21 and September 23) are the times when the day and night are approximately equal in duration at all latitudes, including the Equator.
The Tropic of Cancer (approximately 23.5 degrees North latitude) experiences more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21. This is because June 21 marks the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere, where the North Pole is tilted towards the Sun, leading to longer daylight hours in the Northern Hemisphere and shorter daylight hours in the Southern Hemisphere.
The Tropic of Capricorn (approximately 23.5 degrees South latitude) experiences less than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21. This is because June 21 marks the winter solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, where the South Pole is tilted towards the Sun, leading to shorter daylight hours in the Southern Hemisphere and longer daylight hours in the Northern Hemisphere.
The Arctic Circle (approximately 66.5 degrees North latitude) experiences continuous daylight for 24 hours or more on June 21. This phenomenon is known as the midnight sun and occurs because the North Pole is tilted towards the Sun, causing areas within the Arctic Circle to receive sunlight throughout the entire day and night.

One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

(a) Amazon Basin

(b) Congo Basin

(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

[Ans b]

17. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

All three statements are correct.

18. Consider the following:

Carabid beetles
Centipedes
Flies
Termites
Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

[Ans b]

Parasitoid flies (such as tachinid flies) and parasitoid wasps (such as ichneumonid and braconid wasps) are well-known examples of parasitoids. They lay their eggs on or in a host organism, and the developing larvae feed on the host, eventually leading to its death. Parasitoid species are primarily associated with certain groups of insects.

Also, some species of Carabid beetles are parasitoids, including larvae and adults:

Brachinus: A genus that parasitizes water beetle pupae
Lebia grandis: A species that parasitizes Colorado potato beetle eggs and larvae, and also the false potato beetle
Poecilus versicolor: A species that can be parasitized by hymenopteran larvae

Hence, among the given options, parasitoid species are found in: Carabid beetles, Flies & Wasps

19. Consider the following plants:

Groundnut
Horse-gram
Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans c]

All the given plants belong to the pea family (Fabaceae or Leguminosae):

Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea)
Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum)
Soybean (Glycine max)

Therefore, the correct answer is:

All of them belong to the pea family.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans c]

The Indian flying fox is the largest bat in the world and belongs to the species of megabats native to the Indian subcontinent. They are also called the Great Indian Fruit Bat. It is the carrier of several zoonotic diseases which are transmissible to humans. These bat species have been identified as carriers of the Nipah Virus, which is fatal for humans. In 2018, a Nipah virus outbreak in Kerala was transmitted to humans from the Indian fruit bats.

The Indian Flying Fox comes from the Pteropodidae family of bats. All bats having the Pteropus genus within the Pteropodidae family are natural carriers of the Nipah virus. These bat species mainly feed on ripe fruits like bananas and mangoes, and sometimes they also feed on nectar.

The Indian Flying Fox has a very strong sense of smell, and it helps them to locate their food. Their dietary habits are quite different from those of insectivorous bats. The insectivorous bats find their prey through echolocation. Under this process, they locate the prey by moving towards the source of the echo of their own sound.

These bats have large eyes and excellent eyesight. It allows them to locate fruits from a long distance.

Diet and Behavior of the Indian Flying Fox

The Indian flying fox (Pteropus medius) is a frugivorous bat. This means that its diet consists primarily of fruit. It is known to consume a wide variety of fruits, including mangoes, bananas, figs, guavas, and papayas. The Indian flying fox plays an important role in seed dispersal and pollination. Hence Statement 2 is wrong.

Indian flying foxes are nocturnal animals, meaning that they are most active at night. They spend their days roosting in large colonies, which can number in the thousands. At night, they fly out in search of food. Indian flying foxes have excellent eyesight and hearing.

Indian flying foxes are social animals and live in close-knit colonies. They communicate with each other using a variety of vocalizations. Indian flying foxes are also known to use scent markings to communicate with each other.

Conservation and IUCN Status of Indian Flying Fox

According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List, the Indian Flying Fox falls in the Least Concern category. These bat species are identified as bats and carriers of several zoonotic diseases. The Flying Foxes in the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is classified as a “vermin”. In the agricultural or horticultural sector, the Indian fruit bats are responsible for damaging around 60% of fruits, whether they are ripe or overripe. Hence statement 1 is correct.

The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:

(a) Birds

(b) Fish

(d) Reptiles

[Ans c]

The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater” are insects. Here’s a brief description of each:

Cicada: Cicadas are known for their loud, distinctive mating calls. They belong to the order Hemiptera and the family Cicadidae.
Froghopper: Froghoppers, also known as spittlebugs, are small insects that belong to the order Hemiptera and the family Cercopidae. They are known for the frothy spittle mass that their nymphs produce.
Pond skater: Pond skaters, also known as water striders, belong to the order Hemiptera and the family Gerridae. They are known for their ability to walk on the surface of the water due to surface tension.

Therefore, the organisms “Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater” are all insects.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans a]

Both statements about chewing gums are correct:

Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
- This statement is correct. Chewing gums, when improperly disposed of, can contribute to environmental pollution. They are non-biodegradable and can stick to surfaces for a long time, creating litter and sanitation issues.
Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
- This statement is correct. Many modern chewing gums use synthetic polymers, which are types of plastic, as a base. This makes them non-biodegradable and contributes to environmental pollution when discarded.

Consider the following pair:

	Country	Animal found in its natural habitat
1.	Brazil	Indri
2.	Indonesia	Elk
3.	Madagascar	Bonobo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans d]

Brazil – Indri: The Indri is a large lemur native to Madagascar, not Brazil.
Indonesia – Elk: Elks are native to North America and parts of Asia, but they are not native to Indonesia.
Madagascar – Bonobo: Bonobos are great apes found in the Democratic Republic of the Congo in Africa, not Madagascar.

Therefore, none of the pairs are correct.

24. Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3

[Ans a]

Regarding the World Toilet Organization, let’s evaluate each statement:

It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
- This statement is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organization committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide, but it is not an agency of the United Nations.
World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day, and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
- This statement is correct. The World Toilet Organization is indeed behind these initiatives. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day (recognized by the UN but initially proposed by WTO), and World Toilet College are all efforts by WTO to address global sanitation issues.
The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
- This statement is incorrect. While the World Toilet Organization works towards improving sanitation and advocating for better toilet conditions, its main activities include advocacy, education, and promoting innovative solutions rather than directly granting funds.

25. Consider the following statements:

Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans a]

 Lions do not have a particular breeding season.

This statement is correct. Lions can breed throughout the year, and they do not have a specific breeding season.

 Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.

This statement is correct. Cheetahs cannot roar. Instead, they communicate through a variety of sounds including purrs, chirps, growls, and hisses.

 Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.

This statement is incorrect. Male leopards do proclaim their territory by scent marking, similar to male lions. Both species use scent marking as a way to establish and communicate their territory.

Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?

(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.

(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.

(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

[Ans a]

100 Million Farmers is a multi-stakeholder platform catalyzing action towards net-zero and nature-positive food systems by 2030. 100 Million Farmers operates through regional and national coalitions that develop “lighthouse” public-private projects designed to move local farming towards adopting transformative change.

100 Million Farmers envisions a future where agriculture becomes a net-zero carbon emitter, restores biodiversity, and enhances farmer resilience. This ambitious goal isn’t just about feeding the world today but ensuring future generations can thrive on a healthy planet.

Key Initiatives

1. Carbon Neutrality

By adopting regenerative agriculture techniques such as cover cropping and agroforestry, farmers can sequester carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, mitigating climate change effects.

2. Nature-Positive Practices

Encouraging biodiversity by preserving natural habitats within and around farmland helps maintain ecological balance and supports pollinators crucial for crop production.

3. Resilience Building

Providing farmers with tools and knowledge to adapt to climate variability and market fluctuations ensures they can withstand shocks and continue to thrive.

27. Consider the following:

Battery storage
Biomass generators
Fuel cells
Rooftop solar photovoltaic units

How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans d]

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) refer to a variety of smaller-scale energy technologies and resources that can be used to generate electricity or provide energy services locally, closer to where the energy is consumed. These resources can be integrated into the broader energy grid to enhance efficiency, reliability, and sustainability. All of the options are considered Distributed Energy Resources (DERs):

Battery storage: Batteries store energy and can be used as part of distributed energy systems to store and release electricity as needed, helping to balance supply and demand.
Biomass generators: Biomass generators produce electricity from organic materials like wood, agricultural residues, or biogas, often on a smaller scale compared to large power plants.
Fuel Cells: Fuel cells generate electricity through a chemical reaction, often using hydrogen as a fuel source. They can be used in distributed energy systems to generate power locally.
Rooftop solar photovoltaic units: Rooftop solar panels convert sunlight into electricity, and when installed on individual buildings or homes, they contribute to distributed energy generation.

Therefore, all of the options you’ve mentioned are considered Distributed Energy Resources.

Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?

(a) Fig

(b) Mahua

(d) Silk cotton

[Ans a]

Figs have a unique relationship with fig wasps (family Agaonidae), which are the only insects that can pollinate fig trees. This relationship is an example of coevolution, where both the fig tree and the fig wasp have evolved specialized features that allow them to depend on each other for survival and reproduction.

29. Consider the following:

Butterflies
Fish
Frogs

How many of the above have poisonous species among them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans c]

All three options can include poisonous species:

Butterflies: While most butterflies are not poisonous to humans, there are some species, like the monarch butterfly, that are toxic due to the plants they consume during their larval stage. The toxicity is primarily for predators that might try to eat them.
Fish: Some fish species can be poisonous to humans if consumed, especially if they contain toxins such as ciguatoxin (found in certain reef fish) or tetrodotoxin (found in pufferfish). These toxins can cause illness or even be fatal if ingested.
Frogs: Many frog species produce toxins in their skin as a defense mechanism against predators. Poison dart frogs, for example, are known for their potent toxins, which can be lethal if touched or ingested.

Therefore, all three options can include poisonous species, but the toxicity and effects can vary widely depending on the specific species involved.

30. Consider the following:

Cashew
Papaya
Red sanders

How many of the above trees are actually native to India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans a]

Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is a tree species native to India and is known for its red wood, which is highly valued. It is primarily found in the southern parts of India, particularly in the Eastern Ghats region.

31. With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans b]

 Radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs) are miniature fission reactors.

This statement is incorrect. RTGs are not miniature fission reactors. Instead, they use the heat generated from the radioactive decay of isotopes to produce electricity through thermoelectric processes. There is no nuclear chain reaction involved, as in fission reactors.

 RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecraft.

This statement is correct. RTGs are commonly used in space missions to provide power to spacecraft and their onboard systems, especially for missions that venture far from the Sun where solar power may be limited.

 RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.

This statement is correct. Plutonium-238 is indeed used in RTGs as a radioactive isotope to generate heat for electricity production. It is produced as a by-product of nuclear weapons production but is primarily used for non-weapon purposes such as in RTGs.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans d]

 Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.

This statement is incorrect. Giant stars are actually at a more advanced stage of their life cycle compared to dwarf stars. They have exhausted their core hydrogen fuel and are in later stages of stellar evolution. Due to this, giant stars generally have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars.

 Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.

This statement is correct. Giant stars have a higher rate of nuclear reactions in their cores compared to dwarf stars. This higher rate of nuclear fusion is what causes them to expand and become giant stars in the first place.

Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increase blood flow?

(a) Nitric oxide

(b) Nitrous oxide

(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

[Ans a]

Nitric oxide (NO) is a signalling molecule produced by the endothelial cells lining blood vessels. It plays a crucial role in vasodilation, which helps to increase blood flow and regulate blood pressure.

34. Consider the following activities:

Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
Monitoring of precipitation
Tracking the migration of animals

In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans. b]

Radars are not typically used for the direct identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft. Radars are primarily used for detecting and tracking objects in the air, such as aircraft, birds, weather systems, and other large objects. They work by emitting radio waves and then detecting the reflected signals, which can provide information about the presence and location of objects.

For identifying narcotics on passengers, airports and aircraft typically use other technologies such as X-ray scanners, metal detectors, and chemical detection devices. These technologies are specifically designed for detecting illegal substances or hazardous materials on individuals or in luggage.

So, radars are not directly used for the identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft.

Radars can indeed be used for monitoring precipitation. Weather radars are specifically designed to detect and track precipitation, such as rain, snow, hail, and sleet. They work by emitting pulses of microwave radiation and then receiving the signals reflected back from precipitation particles in the atmosphere.

By analyzing the returned signals, weather radars can provide valuable information about the intensity, location, movement, and type of precipitation in a particular area. This data is crucial for weather forecasting, flood prediction, and monitoring of severe weather events.

Radars can be used to some extent for tracking the migration of animals, particularly larger species or flocks of birds. However, there are limitations to their effectiveness in this regard:

Bird Migration: Radar systems, especially weather radars, can detect bird flocks during migration. By analyzing radar returns, researchers can estimate the density, speed, and direction of bird movement. This information is valuable for studying migration patterns, identifying migration routes, and assessing the impact of human activities on bird populations.
Marine Animals: Radars installed on ships or coastal stations can sometimes detect large marine animals such as whales or dolphins when they surface. However, this is more challenging compared to tracking birds because marine animals may not always be within the radar’s range or may not produce strong enough radar reflections for reliable tracking.
Limitations: Radars have limitations in tracking small or low-flying animals, such as insects or small birds. They are also less effective in dense vegetation or urban areas where radar signals can be obstructed or reflected by buildings and trees.

In summary, while radars can be used to some extent for tracking the migration of animals, their effectiveness depends on the size and behavior of the animals being tracked, as well as environmental factors that can affect radar signals.

35. Consider the following aircraft:

Rafael
MiG-29
Tejas MK-1

How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

[Ans d]

Among the aircraft listed, none of them are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft. Here’s a brief overview of each aircraft and their generation classification:

Rafale: The Rafale is a 5 generation multirole fighter aircraft developed by Dassault Aviation of France. It is not classified as a fifth-generation fighter.
MiG-29: The MiG-29 (NATO reporting name: Fulcrum) is a fourth-generation air superiority fighter aircraft developed by Mikoyan of Russia. It is also not classified as a fifth-generation fighter.
Tejas MK1: The Tejas MK1 is a 5 generation lightweight multirole fighter aircraft developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) of India. It is part of India’s indigenous fighter program and is not considered a fifth-generation fighter.

Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are characterized by advanced stealth technology, integrated avionics, sensor fusion, and network-centric warfare capabilities. Examples of fifth-generation fighters include the Lockheed Martin F-22 Raptor, the F-35 Lightning II, and the Chengdu J-20.

Therefore, among the aircraft listed, none of them are considered fifth-generation fighter aircraft.

36. In which of the following are hydrogels used?

Controlled drug delivery in patients
Mobile air-conditioning systems
Preparation of industrial lubricants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

Hydrogels are primarily used in controlled drug delivery in patients. They are a type of polymeric material that can absorb and retain large amounts of water while maintaining their structure. This property makes them suitable for various biomedical applications, including:

Controlled Drug Delivery: Hydrogels can be loaded with drugs and implanted or injected into the body. They release the drug in a controlled and sustained manner, improving drug efficacy, reducing side effects, and enhancing patient compliance.

Other application areas such as wound dressings, tissue engineering, contact lenses, diagnostics, mobile air-conditioning systems and preparation of industrial lubricants.

Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?

(a) Hydrogen peroxide

(b) Hydronium

(d) Water vapour

[Ans d]

The exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen is primarily: Water vapor

When hydrogen is used as fuel in a fuel cell, the only significant byproduct is water vapor (H2O). This is one of the main advantages of FCEVs as they produce no harmful emissions like traditional internal combustion engine vehicles.

Recently the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?

(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields

(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops

(d) Rainwater harvesting system

[Ans c]

Pumped storage hydro power is a method of storing energy by using two reservoirs at different elevations. During times of low electricity demand, excess electricity is used to pump water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir. When electricity demand is high, the stored water is released from the upper reservoir to the lower reservoir, passing through turbines to generate electricity. This process allows for efficient and flexible energy storage, especially for managing fluctuating renewable energy sources like wind and solar power.

“Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of

(a) Assisted reproductive technologies

(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies

(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

[Ans d]

Membrane bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment processes with membrane filtration in wastewater treatment systems. They are used to treat various types of wastewaters, including municipal sewage, industrial effluents, and agricultural runoff, by removing contaminants and producing treated water that meets regulatory standards for discharge or reuse.

With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:

(a) Bond market

(b) Forex market

(d) Stock market

[Ans c]

In the money market, collateral borrowing and lending obligations refer to transactions where financial institutions and banks borrow or lend funds with collateral as security. This is a common practice in short-term lending and borrowing activities within the money market to manage liquidity and meet short-term funding needs.

The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:

(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.

(b) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population.

(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

[Ans d]

Total fertility rate (TFR) is a demographic term that represents the average number of children a woman is expected to have during her reproductive years, usually defined as ages 15 to 49, based on current birth rates. It is a key indicator used to measure fertility levels in a population.

TFR is often expressed as the number of live births per woman. For example, a TFR of 2.1 means that, on average, each woman is expected to have 2.1 children over her lifetime, which is considered to be the replacement level fertility necessary to maintain a stable population size over the long term in the absence of migration.

42. Consider the following statements:

In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

[Ans c]

In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of The Reserve Bank of India.

This statement is true. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for short-term liquidity management.

https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/BS_ViewMasDirections.aspx?id=10476#:~:text=access%20to%20Current%20Account%20facility,access%20to%20OMO%20by%20RBI.

In India, foreign institutional investors can hold government securities (G-Secs).

This statement is true. Foreign institutional investors (FIIs) are allowed to invest in government securities (G-Secs) in India, subject to certain regulatory limits and guidelines set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

In India, stock exchanges can offer a separate trading platform for debts.

This statement is true. Stock exchanges in India, such as the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE), offer separate trading platforms for debt instruments like corporate bonds, debentures, and government securities.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

43. In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

Insurance Companies
Pension Funds
Retail Investors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

All three options are correct. Insurance companies and pension funds are institutional investors that often trade in corporate bonds and government securities. Additionally, retail investors can also participate in these markets through various investment platforms and instruments.

44. Consider the following:

Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
Motor vehicles
Currency swap

Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

[Ans d]

Among the given options, the following are considered financial instruments:

1) Exchange Traded Funds (ETF)
3) Currency Swap

Motor vehicles (option b) are not financial instruments.

With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Economic activity	Sector
1.	Storage of agricultural produce	Secondary
2.	Dairy farm	Primary
3.	Mineral exploration	Tertiary
4.	Weaving cloth	Secondary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

To find the correct pairs of economic activity and sector, let’s classify each activity correctly:

Storage of agricultural produce: This involves handling, processing, and storing goods, which is typically part of the tertiary sector (services).
Dairy farm: This involves the production of raw milk, which is an agricultural activity and part of the primary sector.
Mineral exploration: This involves the search for mineral resources, which is typically considered part of the primary sector.

Both mineral extraction and mineral exploration are part of the primary sector.

Mineral Exploration: This involves the search for mineral resources, including surveying and prospecting, and it is part of the primary sector because it deals with the identification and assessment of natural resources.
Mineral Extraction: This involves the actual removal of minerals from the earth, such as mining activities, and it is also part of the primary sector as it involves extracting raw materials directly from natural resources.

Thus, both activities are classified under the primary sector, which includes activities that involve the direct extraction and collection of natural resources.

Weaving cloth: This involves the manufacturing process of turning raw materials into finished goods, which is part of the secondary sector (industry).

So the corrected pairs are:

Storage of agricultural produce – Tertiary sector
Dairy farm – Primary sector
Mineral exploration – Primary sector
Weaving cloth – Secondary sector

46. Consider the following materials:

Agricultural residues
Corn grains
Wastewater treatment sludge
Wood mill waste

Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

[Ans c]

Each of these materials can be converted into biofuels through various processes, contributing to the production of sustainable aviation fuel.

With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

	Items	Category
1.	Farmer’s plough	Working capital
2.	Computer	Fixed capital
3.	Yarn used by the weaver	Fixed capital
4.	Petrol	Working capital

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

Farmer’s plough: working capital
This is A farmer’s plough is a tool used over a long period and is considered fixed capital.
Computer: fixed capital
This is A computer is a long-term asset used in production and is considered fixed capital.
Yarn used by the weaver: fixed capital
This is Yarn is a raw material used up in the production process and is considered working capital.
Petrol: working capital
This is Petrol is a consumable item used in the production process and is considered working capital.

So, the correctly matched pairs are:

Computer: fixed capital
Petrol: working capital

Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items.”?

(a) Big data analytics

(b) Cryptography

(d) Virtual matrix

[Ans c]

49. With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans b]

The statements given refer to the regulatory framework imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on foreign banks operating in India, particularly when they choose to operate as wholly owned subsidiaries.

There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
- This statement is incorrect. The RBI has set a minimum capital requirement for wholly owned subsidiaries of foreign banks operating in India. According to the RBI guidelines, the minimum capital requirement for a wholly owned subsidiary is Rs. 500 crore.
For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
- This statement is correct. The RBI requires that at least 50% of the directors of the wholly owned subsidiary should be Indian nationals or non-resident Indians (NRIs) with substantial experience in banking.

Based on the above information, the correct answer is:

Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct.

50. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans a]

Let’s analyze the statements with reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India.

CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or the employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
- This statement is correct. According to the Companies Act, 2013 and the associated CSR rules, expenditures that benefit only the employees of the company and their families, or expenditures that are in the normal course of business, are not considered as CSR activities. CSR activities are intended to benefit the broader community and not just the company’s own interests or employees.
CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
- This statement is incorrect. The CSR rules do specify a minimum spending requirement. According to Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, companies meeting certain criteria (such as a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year) are required to spend at least 2% of their average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.

Based on the above analysis:

Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Only statement 1 is correct.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.

Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans d]

Let’s analyze the given statements and determine the correct answer.

Statement-I

“If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.”

In the event of a default, holders of US Treasury Bonds would still have legal claims to receive payments. Default means that the government is failing to meet its payment obligations as scheduled, but it does not nullify the legal claims of the bondholders. Bondholders could still pursue legal action or seek payment, although they may face delays or reduced payments. Hence this statement is incorrect.

Statement-II

“The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.”

This statement is correct. US government debt, including Treasury Bonds, is not backed by physical assets (such as gold or real estate), but rather by the “full faith and credit” of the US government, which means it is backed by the government’s ability to tax and its reputation for reliability in repaying its debts.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-l: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.

Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans c]

Let’s analyze the given statements and determine the correct answer.

Statement-I

“Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.”

This statement is correct. Syndicated lending involves multiple lenders (usually banks) coming together to provide a large loan to a single borrower. By doing so, the risk of borrower default is spread across all participating lenders, reducing the risk for each individual lender.

Statement-II

“The syndicated loan can be fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.”

This statement is incorrect. Syndicated loans can be structured in various ways, including as a fixed amount/lump sum or as a revolving credit facility (credit line). The flexibility of syndicated loans means they can cater to the specific needs of the borrower, including providing a line of credit.

Conclusion

Statement-I is correct because syndicated lending does spread the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II is incorrect because syndicated loans can indeed be structured as either a fixed amount/lump sum or as a credit line.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

53. Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI alignment with its monetary policy.
It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
It is insured against inflation by its very design.
It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

[Ans d]

The digital rupee, as proposed and implemented by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), has specific characteristics that align with the following statements. Let’s analyze each statement to determine which ones are correct:

It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India RBI in alignment with its monetary policy.
- This statement is correct. The digital rupee is issued by the RBI, making it a sovereign currency that is aligned with the central bank’s monetary policy.
It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
- This statement is correct. Like physical currency, the digital rupee would appear as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet because it represents a claim on the central bank.
It is insured against inflation by its very design.
- This statement is incorrect. The digital rupee, like any fiat currency, is subject to inflationary pressures. Its value can be affected by the same economic factors that influence traditional currency, and it is not inherently insured against inflation.
It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
- This statement is correct. The digital rupee is intended to be freely convertible against commercial bank money and physical cash, ensuring its usability and liquidity within the financial system.

Based on the analysis, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4. Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2 and 4

54. With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

Nayaputta
Shakyamuni
Tathagata

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

[Ans b]

Gautama Buddha, the founder of Buddhism, was known by several epithets. Let’s analyze the given options:

Nayaputta: This is not an epithet commonly associated with Gautama Buddha. It is actually associated with Mahavira, the 24th Tirthankara of Jainism, who was often referred to as Nigantha Nataputta or Nayaputta.
Shakyamuni: This is a well-known epithet of Gautama Buddha. It means “Sage of the Shakyas,” referring to his belonging to the Shakya clan.
Tathagata: This is another common epithet used by Gautama Buddha to refer to himself, which means “Thus-Gone” or “Thus-Come,” emphasizing his enlightenment and transcendence.

Based on this analysis, the correct answer is:

(b) 2 and 3 only

Consider the following information:

	Archaeological Site	State	Description
1.	Chandraketugarh	Odisha	Trading Port town
2.	Inamgaon	Maharashtra	Chalcolithic site
3.	Mangadu	Kerala	Megalithic site
4.	Salihundam	Andhra Pradesh	Rock-cut cave shrines

In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

[Ans b]

Let’s review each archaeological site with the given state and description to identify which rows are correctly matched:

Chandraketugarh:
- State: West Bengal, not Odisha.
- Description: It was a trading port town.
- Incorrectly
Inamgaon:
- State: Maharashtra.
- Description: It is a Chalcolithic site.
- Correctly
Mangadu:
- State: Kerala.
- Description: Mangadu, in Kerala is a newly discovered prehistoric site where megaliths are found in large numbers. The date of the Mangadu megaliths is approximately from 1000 B.C. to 100 B.C.
- https://www.indianetzone.com/22/mangadu_an_archaeological_site_india.htm
- Correctly
Salihundam:
- State: Andhra Pradesh.
- Description: It is known for Buddhist stupas and not rock-cut cave shrines.
- Incorrectly

Therefore, the correctly matched row is: (b) 2 and 3

Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?

(a) Krishnadevaraya

(b) Narasimha Saluva

(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

[Ans a]

Long before the modern era of resort politics, in what was the Golden Age of Karnataka, horse-trading, in its literal sense, used to be a noble profession. In the vast Vijayanagar Empire (1336-1565 AD) that stretched around Hampi from coast to coast,…

Read more at: https://www.deccanherald.com/lifestyle/travel/confluence-faiths-677840.html
Many of Bhatkal’s temples and Jain basadis were built during this period of prosperity. Emperor Krishnadevaraya allowed the Portuguese to build a fort here in 1510, but little of it survives today.

57. With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, statements: consider the following

Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of had harvests or natural calamities.
Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.

Which of the statements given above is ware correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans b]

Let’s analyze each statement regarding revenue collection during Cornwallis’s time:

Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
- This statement is incorrect. In the Ryotwari system, peasants were not exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. They were directly responsible for paying revenue to the state, and their lands could be seized if they failed to pay.
Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
- This statement is correct. In the Permanent Settlement, Zamindars were required to pay fixed revenues to the state, and failure to do so could result in the Zamindari being auctioned or transferred to another Zamindar.

Based on the analysis:

Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (b) 2 only

58. Consider the following statements:

There are no parables in Upanishads.
Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither I nor 2

[Ans b]

Let’s analyze each statement regarding the Upanishads:

There are no parables in Upanishads.
- This statement is incorrect. The Upanishads, ancient philosophical-religious texts in Hinduism, contain parables. These narratives illustrate traditional Indian education, explore rites and customs, and interpret the quest for self-knowledge and spiritual realization. While the Upanishads primarily consist of philosophical and mystical teachings, they often use allegorical stories, metaphors, and parables to convey deeper spiritual truths.
Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.

This statement is correct.

Upanishads:

- The Upanishads are ancient philosophical texts that form the concluding part of the Vedas.
- They explore profound spiritual and metaphysical concepts, emphasizing self-realization, meditation, and the nature of reality.
- The Upanishads date back to around 800 BCE to 200 BCE.
Puranas:
- The Puranas are a genre of texts that narrate stories of gods, goddesses, and ancient history.
- They were composed later, starting from around 300 CE and continuing through the medieval period.

In summary, the Upanishads predate the Puranas by several centuries.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (b) 2 only.

59. Consider the following statements:

India is a member of the International Grains Council.
A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans a]

Yes, India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). The IGC is an intergovernmental organization established in 1949 to promote cooperation in the global grains trade. India’s Department of Food & Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution acts as the nodal agency for the IGC.

Membership

The IGC has 30 member countries, all of which are parties to the Grains Trade Convention, 1995. Each member is classified as an importer or exporter based on their average trade in grains, rice, and oilseeds.

Functions

The IGC monitors grain markets, provides data and forecasts, and advises on policy matters. It also oversees the implementation of the Grains Trade Convention and discusses current and future grain market developments.

Recent developments

In 2021, the IGC opened an office in India, recognizing the country as a significant market for trade and development. In 2024, Mr. Hamed Oussama Salhi of Algeria was appointed Chairperson for 2024/25, and Erin Tomkinson of Australia was appointed Vice-Chairperson.

Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?

(a) Chhau dance

(b) Durga puja

(d) Kumbh mela

[Ans c]

Chhau dance	2010	Performing Arts	West Bengal, Jharkhand and Odisha	Purulia Chhau, Saraikela Chhau and Mayurbhanj Chhau are various styles of the dance.
Kumbh Mela	2017	Festival	Cities of Prayagraj, Haridwar, Trimbak-Nashik and Ujjain	Maha Kumbha Mela held every 12 year on rotation.
Durga Puja in Kolkata	2021	Festival	City of Kolkata	It is a festival of worshipping of Goddess Durga.
Garba of Gujarat	2023	Festival	Gujarat	It is a form of dance and performed on festivals and occasions.

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

(a) C. Rajagopalachari

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

[Ans d]

The Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad was Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha. He presided over the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly on December 9, 1946, as the oldest member, fulfilling the role until Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly on December 11, 1946.

62. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans a]

Here’s the reasoning:

Statement 1: It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
- This statement is The Government of India Act, 1935, indeed proposed the establishment of an All India Federation that would include both British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
Statement 2: Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
- This statement is Defence and Foreign Affairs were retained under the control of the British government, not the federal legislature, as part of the reserved subjects under the Act.

Therefore, only the first statement is correct.

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?

(a) Kavyalankara

(b) Natyashastra

(d) Mahabhashya

[Ans c]

Bhasa is a renowned ancient Indian playwright, and “Madhyama Vyayoga” is one of the works attributed to him. The other options are not attributed to Bhasa:

“Kavyalankara” is a work on poetics by Bhamaha.
“Natyashastra” is an ancient Indian treatise on the performing arts, attributed to Bharata Muni.
“Mahabhashya” is a commentary on Panini’s grammar, attributed to Patanjali.

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:

(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra

(b) Visuddhimagga

(d) Lalitavistara

[Ans c]

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, is known for his work on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, a set of disciplinary rules for monks and nuns in the Sarvastivada tradition.

65. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

Shantiniketan
Rani-ki-Vav
Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) designates World Heritage Sites of outstanding universal value to cultural or natural heritage which have been nominated by countries which are signatories to the UNESCO World Heritage Convention, established in 1972.

There are 42 World Heritage Sites in India. Out of these, 34 are cultural, 7 are natural, and one, Khangchendzonga National Park, is of mixed type. India has the sixth-most sites worldwide. The first sites to be listed were the Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, Agra Fort, and Taj Mahal, all of which were inscribed in the 1983 session of the World Heritage Committee. The most recent sites listed were Santiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas, in 2023.

66. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition
Variation
Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) 1, 2, and 3.

Article 368 of the Constitution of India grants the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal of any provision.

67. Consider the following countries:

Italy
Japan
Nigeria
South Korea
south Africa

Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(d) 3 and 5 only

[Ans a]

The correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 4.

Italy, Japan, and South Korea are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, ageing populations, and declining populations.

68. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

[Ans c]

The correct answer is (c) 1, 2, and 3.

Here’s the reasoning for each statement:

Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
- This statement is correct. Article 109 of the Constitution of India outlines the special procedures for the passage of Money Bills.
A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
- This statement is correct. According to Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People).
The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
- This statement is The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to a Money Bill but cannot reject it. The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject all or any of the suggestions made by the Rajya Sabha.
Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
- This statement is The Lok Sabha is not obligated to accept the amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. It can choose to accept or reject any or all of them.

Thus, the statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, making (c) the correct answer.

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) 3 only.

Here’s the correct matching of equivalent ranks in the three services of Indian Defence forces:

Brigadier (Army) – Air Commodore (Air Force) – Commodore (Navy) (Incorrect)
Major General (Army) – Air Vice Marshal (Air Force) – Rear Admiral (Navy) (Incorrect)
Major (Army) – Squadron Leader (Air Force) – Lieutenant Commander (Navy) (Correct)
Lieutenant Colonel (Army) – Group Captain (Air Force) – Captain (Navy) (Incorrect)

Thus, only the third pair is correctly matched.

70. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the Correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

[Ans a]

The correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 3 only.

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. After the amendment of the NEC Act in 2002, the composition of the Council includes:

The Governors of the constituent states.
The Chief Ministers of the constituent states.
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India.

The Home Minister of India is not a member of the NEC.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1, 2, and 3 only.

How many delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

(a) One

(b) Two

(d) Four

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) Four.

Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past — 1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 — under Delimitation Commission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.

72. The Constitution (71^stAmendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eights Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

Konkani
Manipuri
Nepali
Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

[Ans a]

The correct answer is (a) 1, 2 and 3.

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include the following languages:

Konkani
Manipuri
Nepali

Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act in 2003.

Consider the following pairs:

Party	Its Leader
1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh	Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party	C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy	Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party	Acharya Narendra Dev

How many of the above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

[Ans b]

The correct answer is (b) Only two.

Here’s the correct matching of parties and their leaders:

Bharatiya Jana Sangh – Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee (Correct)
Socialist Party – C. Rajagopalachari (Incorrect, Rajagopalachari was associated with the Swatantra Party)
Congress for Democracy – Jagjivan Ram (Correct)
Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev (Incorrect, Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party)

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.

74. Which of the following statements are correct about the constitution of India?

Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.

All three statements are correct:

Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
Provisions related to the amendment of the constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.

(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.

(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

[Ans c]

The correct answer is (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.

As per the Constitution of India, the subjects are divided into the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

Inter-State trade and commerce is not a State subject but falls under the Union List.
Inter-State migration is also not a State subject but involves provisions under the Union List and the Concurrent List.
Inter-State quarantine is explicitly mentioned as a Union subject under the Union List.
Corporation tax is a Union subject under the Union List, not a State subject.

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(d) Article 21

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) Article 21.

The Supreme Court of India has placed the Right to Privacy under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. This was established in the landmark judgment of K.S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India (2017).

77. What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

[Ans d]

The correct answer is (d) 1 and 3 only.

The duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs include:

Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee – This is correct. The CDS serves as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs – This is incorrect. The Service Chiefs retain operational command over their respective services. The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three Service Chiefs.
Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters – This is correct. The CDS acts as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on tri-service matters.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1 and 3 only.

Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:

(a) Operations Sankalp

(b) Operation Maitri

(d) Operation Madad

[Ans c]

The correct answer is (c) Operation Sadbhavana.

Operation Sadbhavana refers to operations undertaken by the Indian Army towards the upliftment of the local population in remote areas, including addressing their basic needs and fostering goodwill among communities.

The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:

(a) Canada and the United States of America

(b) Chile and Argentina

(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

[Ans a]

The correct answer is (a) Canada and the United States of America.

The border between Canada and the United States of America is the longest international border in the world, spanning approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles).

80. Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans c]

The correct answer is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Here’s the explanation for each statement:

Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
- This statement is correct. The Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha was initially constituted as an ad-hoc committee and later made a permanent committee.
Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- This statement is incorrect. Any person, including a non-Member of Parliament, can make a complaint to the Ethics Committee regarding the unethical conduct of a Member of Parliament.
This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
- This statement is correct. The Ethics Committee typically does not take up matters that are sub-judice (under judicial consideration).

81. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

Provisions will come into effect from the 18^thLok Sabha.
This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
There are provisions for the reservation of seats for scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

[Ans c]

The correct answer is (c) 2 and 3 only. Let’s explain:

Provisions coming into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha:

The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women. Hence, this statement is wrong.

Duration of reservation: The bill proposes that the reservation for women will continue for a period of 15 years. Hence, this statement is correct.
Reservation for Scheduled Castes Women: In the seats reserved for SCs/STs, the Bill sought to provide one-third of the seats to be reserved for women on rotational basis. Hence, this statement is correct.

82. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

[Ans d]

Joint Military Exercise: Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka. Hence incorrect.
Location: It took place from November 16–29, 2023 and commenced in Aundh (Pune).
Counter-Terrorism Operations: The exercise aimed to enhance joint responses during counter-terrorism operations.
Indian Air Force: The Indian contingent, of 120 personnel, is being represented mainly by troops from the MARATHA LIGHT INFANTRY Regiment. The Sri Lankan side is being represented by personnel from 53 Infantry Division. 15 personnel from Indian Air Force and five personnel from Sri Lankan Air Force are also participating in the exercise.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 2, 3 and 4.

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.

(b) the parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.

(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

[Ans c]

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to prohibit the lower court from continuing proceedings in a specific case. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.

84. Consider the following statements:

It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans b]

The correct answer is (b) 2 only.

Here’s the explanation for each statement:

It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.

False. The recognition and declaration of any community as a Scheduled Tribe in India is based on a process that involves both the President and the Governor of the concerned state. Here’s how it works:

President’s Role:

- The President, after consulting with the Governor of the relevant state, may specify castes or tribes to be recognized as Scheduled Tribes (STs) in that particular state or union territory.
- This recognition is based on the social, educational, and economic backwardness faced by these communities.

Governor’s Role:

- The Governor plays a crucial role in this process by providing input and consultation to the President.
- After the President’s approval, a public notification is issued specifying the tribes or tribal communities as Scheduled Tribes in relation to that state or union territory.

Remember that the list of Scheduled Tribes is state-specific, and a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not be so in another state.

A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
- This statement is correct. The list of Scheduled Tribes can vary from one state to another, as it is a state-specific list. A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state may not have the same status in another state.

Therefore, only statement 2 is correct.

85. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.
At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans b]

The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the House of Parliament.

The Annual Financial Statement, commonly known as the Budget, is presented before both Houses of Parliament by the President of India. Article 112 of the Indian Constitution mandates that “the President of India shall cause to be laid before both the houses of the parliament” the Annual Financial Statement. This statement provides a comprehensive overview of the expected revenues and expenditures of the Government of India for the upcoming year. It is a reflection of the budget figures from previous years, forming a crucial part of the financial planning and management of the country. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

This statement is correct. As per the Constitution of India, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the authority of a Parliamentary law. The President’s recommendation is required for any demand for a grant or appropriation bill.

Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?

(a) Bhupender Yadav

(b) Nalin Mehta

(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

[Ans d]

The author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters” is Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s current External Affairs Minister. These books provide valuable insights into India’s foreign policy, strategic approach, and its role in global affairs.

Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1	Argentina	Worst economic crisis
2	Sudan	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

[Ans b]

Argentina: It is indeed in the news due to its worst economic crisis.
Sudan Forces: The ongoing civil warin Sudan involves clashes between the regular army (Sudanese Armed Forces – SAF) and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (RSF) .
Turkey: While Turkey has been involved in various international matters, it hasnot rescinded its membership of NATO

Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched: Argentina (worst economic crisis) and Sudan Forces (war between regular army and paramilitary forces). The correct answer is (b) Only two pairs.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.

Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans b]

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct:

Statement-I: The Sumed pipeline, also known as the Suez-Mediterranean pipeline, is indeed a strategic route for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf to Europe. It connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea, providing an alternative route to the Suez Canal for oil shipments.
Statement-II: The Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea, serving as a crucial energy transportation link.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.

89. Consider the following statements:

The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans c]

Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct:

The Red Seaindeed receives very little precipitation in any form. It is a hyper-saline sea, meaning it has a high salt concentration due to high evaporation rates and limited freshwater input.
It is also true that no major riversdirectly flow into the Red Sea. Unlike other seas, which receive freshwater from rivers, the Red Sea primarily relies on oceanic inflow from the Indian Ocean through the narrow Bab-el-Mandeb strait.

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of Sulphur dioxide emissions?

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels

(b) Ships using fossil fuels

(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

[Ans d]

The largest source of sulfur dioxide (SO2) emissions, according to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), is (d) Power plants using fossil fuels.

Power plants that burn fossil fuels like coal and oil are major contributors to sulfur dioxide emissions due to the sulfur content in these fuels.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.

Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II in correct

[Ans a]

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct:

Statement-I: The Sahel region, which spans across parts of Africa, has indeed experienced instabilityand a worsening security situation. This region faces challenges related to terrorism, armed conflicts, and humanitarian crises.
Statement-II: Several countries in the Sahel have indeed witnessed military takeoversor coups d’état in recent times. These political upheavals have contributed to the region’s instability.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.

Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans d]

Only Statement-II is correct:

Statement-I: Contrary to what it claims, India does import apples from the United States. In fact, the USA is one of the major suppliers of apples to India, alongside other countries such as Chile, New Zealand, and Italy.
Statement-II: In India, the law indeed prohibits the import of Genetically Modified (GM) food without the approval of the competent authority. This regulation ensures that any GM food entering the country undergoes proper scrutiny and evaluation before being allowed for consumption.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d).

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

He/She shall not preside.
He/She shall not have the right to speak.
He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans a]

The correct statement(s) regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha during the consideration of a resolution for their removal are as follows:

He/She shall not preside: This is correct. When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is being discussed, the Speaker does not preside over the proceedings. Instead, a Deputy Speaker or another senior member of the House takes charge.
He/She shall not have the right to speak: This is also incorrect. He can speak and take part in proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of equality of votes.
He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance: This statement is incorrect. The Speaker does have the right to vote, but only in the case of a tie. If there is a tie on the resolution, the Speaker casts the deciding vote.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

94. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

[Ans b]

Certainly! Let’s break down the statements regarding the lapsing of bills in the Indian Parliament:

A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution: This statement is correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business—including bills—pending before it or its committees lapse. Bills that were pending in the Lok Sabha at the time of dissolution need to be reintroduced in the newly-constituted Lok Sabha to be pursued further.
A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha: This statement is also correct. If a bill originated in the Lok Sabha and was passed by it but was still pending in the Rajya Sabha, it lapses when the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
A bill in regard to which the President of India notified the intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha: This statement is incorrect. If the President has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the bill does not lapse.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2.

95. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

[Ans c]

The President has the authority to prorogue either House of Parliament or both Houses simultaneously. This power is outlined in Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution of India. But the prorogation of a House by the President of India is generally done on the advice of the Council of Ministers. [Reference Article 74(1)]. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

Prorogation of a House is typically done after the House is adjourned sine die, which means the House is adjourned indefinitely. However, there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House even if it is in session. Prorogation formally ends a session of Parliament, and the President has the authority to prorogue either House or both Houses simultaneously, regardless of whether they are in session or adjourned sine die. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The dissolution of the Lok Sabha, which marks the end of its term before a new election, is done by the President of India. However, the President typically acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister in this matter, except in exceptional circumstances where the Council of Ministers may not be able to provide such advice, such as a situation where no party or coalition can provide a stable government. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I Statement-II explains

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans c]

Only Statement-I is correct:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA), which aims to boost Europe’s net-zero industry. It sets out a framework for innovating and scaling up manufacturing capacity for net-zero technologies within the EU. These technologies are crucial for achieving the EU’s climate-neutrality goals by 2050. Hence correct.

Read more: https://www.mercomindia.com/eu-approves-net-zero-industry-act

Statement-II:

The European Commission said its 90-percent target for 2040 is in line with the Paris Climate Agreement, and forms the foundation for the EU to continue to lead the way on international climate action, while creating opportunities for European industry to thrive in new global markets for clean technology. The EU is aiming to make Europe the first climate neutral continent by 2050 and has decided to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 55 percent by 2030, compared to 1990 levels, as a stepping stone. Also “aims to develop all of its own clean technology”- this makes the statement extreme. Hence incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c).

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

[Ans d]

Statement-I: Venezuela, home to the world’s largest oil reserves, has indeed faced significant economic and political challenges. Decades of poor governance, mismanagement, and external factors have led to an economic collapse, hyperinflation, and scarcity of basic goods. The crisis has been severe, with three out of four Venezuelans living in extreme poverty. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Statement-II: Venezuela indeed has the largest proven oil reserves in the world. However, despite its oil wealth, the country has struggled to translate this resource into sustained economic stability due to mismanagement, corruption, and other factors.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

98. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme, consider the following statements:

To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

[Ans d]

The earlier National Land Records Modernization Programme (NILRMP), approved in 2008 as a centrally Sponsored Scheme, has been revamped as the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) a Central Sector Scheme with 100% Central Government funding with effect from 1st April 2016. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The DILRMP aims to digitize land records, including cadastral maps, to create a comprehensive and transparent land record management system. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Currently, records of rights in states and union territories are kept in local languages. Linguistic obstacles make it difficult to access and use information in an understandable fashion. To address the issue of linguistic barriers in land governance, the government, with the technical assistance of the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) Pune, has launched an initiative to transliterate Records of Rights available in local languages into any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages of the Constitution. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

99. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements

This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

[Ans b]

Only statement 2 regarding the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) is correct.

The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy at designated government health facilities, but it does not include six months post-delivery health care services in any government health facility. Antenatal care aims to promote and protect the health of pregnant women and their unborn babies, providing essential services such as counselling, birth preparedness, nutrition advice, and detection of conditions that require additional care. Hence this statement is incorrect.
Under this scheme, private sector health care providers with certain specialties can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities, thereby enhancing access to quality maternal and child health care.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2 only.

100. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

[Ans b]

The correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

Here’s the explanation for each statement:

The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
- This statement is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is targeted at unorganized sector workers in the age group of 18 to 40 years.
Age-specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
- The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers in India. The monthly contribution required depends on the beneficiary’s age of entry into the scheme, ranging from Rs 55 to Rs 200. The beneficiary pays 50% of the contribution, and the Central Government matches the remaining 50%. Hence this statement is correct.
Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
- This statement is correct. The scheme aims to provide a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month to subscribers after they attain the age of 60 years.
Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
- This statement is incorrect. During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse.If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and died due to any cause (before age of 60 years), his/her spouse will be entitled to join and continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or exit the scheme as per provisions of exit and withdrawal.

Therefore, the correct statements are 2 and 3.

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